brittniesiedschlaw brittniesiedschlaw

21-10-2018
Mathematics

contestada

the inverse of f(x)=x^2 is also a function t/f

Respuesta :

s418519 s418519

21-10-2018

The Answer is false.

the function f (x) = x 2 is NOT one-to-one, and therefore cannot have an inverse.Therefore, the function f (x) = x 2 does NOT have an inverse.

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altavistard altavistard

21-10-2018

Answer:

False

Step-by-step explanation:

The inverse of f(x) = x^2 is not a function, since the graph fails the vertical line test: a vertical line drawn thru the graph intersects it in 2 places (except at (0,0) ).

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