In humans, dimples are a trait that exhibits simple dominance. The two alleles for this trait are dimples (D) and no dimples (d). A dimpled man whose mother has no dimples marries a woman with no dimples. What is the probability that their first child will have dimples?

Since the dimple trait is simple dominance, it therefore can be inherited in both the homozygous (DD) and heterozygous form (Dd). For non dimples we have (dd).

Thus, for a dimpled man whose mother has no dimples, it can be concluded that he is an heterozygote. (For him to be dimpled with a non dimpled mom, his dad has to be either an homozygous/heterozygous dimpled man. Since his mom is non dimpled (dd), therefore he can only be an heterozygous)

Therefore, a cross between a dimpled man (Dd) and a non dimpled woman will give.

Dd x dd

Dd dd

½ ½

50% 50%

mickymike92 mickymike92 · Answer 2 · 2022-03-21T15:13:32+01:00

Based on the genotype of the parents, the probability that their first child will have dimples is 50% or 0.5

What is a dominant trait?

A dominant trait is the trait that is always expressed phenotypically when present.

In the given scenario, the man is generous for dimples since his mother has no dimples.

The man's genotype is Dd
His wife's genotype is dd since she has no dimples.

A cross between Dd and dd = Dd, Dd, dd, dd.

Therefore, the probability that their first child will have dimples is 50% or 0.5

Learn more about dominant trait at: https://brainly.com/question/16616523