contestada

A 5-year-old boy is noted to have a grade II systolic murmur and a widely split S2 murmur on cardiac exam. His vital signs are stable and he has been asymptomatic. Which of the following statement is accurate regarding this child's presentation and likely condition?
A. No further work-up for a presumed venous humB. Chest x-ray, ECG, and echocardiogram would be indicated as next steps to work up a presumed ventricular septal defectC. This patient's murmur is caused by flow through the pulmonary outflow tract and should be evaluatedD. The patient should be scheduled now for cardiac catheterization

Respuesta :

Answer:

C.

Explanation:

The murmur of this patient is possibly caused by an atrial septal defect that induces excessive blood flow through the pulmonary outflow tract, and should be examined.

B is right assess measures but this is not a ventricular septal defect (Vsd) that normally has a holosystolic murmur and a second heart sound that splits with respiration component.

Hence, the correct option is C.

Otras preguntas