Respuesta :
Answer:
Dr cash   $1,800,000
Cr Notes payable      $1,800,000
Interest accrual:
Dr Interest expense  $24,000
Cr Interest payable          $24,000
Assets               =liabilities            +  shareholders'equity
+Cash $1,800,000 Â Â Â Â Â =+loan $1800,000
                     =+liabilities $24,000   + -retained earnings  $2400
Explanation:
The issue of notes payable on November 1 2015 implies that there is cash inflow of $1,800,000 while current liabilities also increased by $1,800,000,as result cash is debited with the $1,800,000 and credit is posted notes payable.
On 31st December ,interest of two months would been incurred and should be accrued in the accounts with amount below:
$1,800,000*8%*2/12=$24,000
This should be debited to interest expense and credited to interest payable account
- The journal entries and the impacts are to be given below:
(a) On Nov 1
Cash
  To Note Payable
(Being the note issued is recorded)
(b) On Dec 31
Interest expense $24,000  (8% of $1,800,000 × 2 ÷ 12)
   To Interest payable $24,000
(Being interest expense is recorded)
- Now the impacts are as follows:
Assets         = Liabilities          +     Equity
+ Cash      + Note payable ($1,800,000)
($1,800,000) Â + Interest payable ($24,000) Â Â Â Â - Interest expense ($24,000)
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