Respuesta :

Answer:

A. True.

Step-by-step explanation:

I am assuming that it's

sec^2 x - 1 = tan^2 x

Now sec^2 x - 1  = 1 / cos^2 x - 1

= (1 - cos^2 x) / cos^2 x

But 1 - cos^2 x = sin^2 x

so sec^2 x - 1 = sin^2 x / cos ^2 x

= tan^2 x.