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[tex]for \: x \: such \: that \: 0 < x < \frac{\pi}{2}[/tex]
It is the expression
[tex] \frac{ \sqrt{1 - {cos}^{2}x } }{sin \: x} \:- \frac{ \sqrt{1 - {sin}^{2}x } }{cos \: x} \\ \\ is \: equivalent \: to:[/tex]
[tex]f.0 \\ g.1 \\ h.2 \\j. - tan \: x \\ k. \: sin \: 2x[/tex]
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Respuesta :

If 0 < x < π/2, then both sin(x) and cos(x) are positive.

From the Pythagorean identity, we then have

cos²(x) + sin²(x) = 1

⇒   cos(x) = + √(1 - sin²(x))   and   sin(x) = + √(1 - cos²(x))

Then

√(1 - cos²(x))/sin(x) = sin(x)/sin(x) = 1

and

√(1 - sin²(x))/cos(x) = cos(x)/cos(x) = 1

so that the overall expression reduces to

1 - 1 = 0