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Which statement best explains why Shakespeare includes the line "Beware the ides of March" in the first act of the play?

to create an ominous tone that foreshadows Caesar’s fate

to reveal the specific time in which the play is set

to generate curiosity about the ides of March

to build tension and increase the audience’s interest in the play

Respuesta :

mckayla2399
To creat an ominous tone that foreshadows Caesar's fate
Martebi

The statement that best explains why Shakespeare includes the line is:

  • To create an ominous tone that foreshadows Caesar’s fate.

What is a person's fate?

This is known to be that thing that will happen to a person in future times.

An ominous tone is known to be an alarming tone that connote a disaster or evil thing will happen and this was what Shakespeare uses to tell beforehand about Caesar’s fate.

Note that The statement that best explains why Shakespeare includes the line is to create an ominous tone that foreshadows Caesar’s fate and it also capture the audiences or readers.

Therefore option A is correct.

Learn more about Shakespeare from

https://brainly.com/question/7592021

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