Answer:
The correct option is false.
Explanation:
Knowing the past inclination is said to exist when an individual overestimates his/her capacity of foreseeing the results of any occasion which are by difficult to be anticipated. Â
For instance, an individual X anticipating the triumph of Indian group as the consequence of India-Australia cricket coordinate. In spite of the fact that the Indian group may dominate the game, yet that was not a result of the expectation of individual X's forecast. Â
Here, Eduardo isn't anticipating any results, however is adhering to being honest and straightforward to his clients. Henceforth, knowing the past predisposition doesn't exist.